The two letters appearing in Wednesday's paper have clearly raised questions that we as a society should not ignore. There are so many issues before us as a country preparing to vote in a new president (hopefully one that does not lie under oath and because of his office not be penalized for perjury).
No matter what issues come before us, it is true as stated in one article that the abortion issue has come up over and over again. It is unresolved both morally and legally. It is my personal belief that abortion is a fancy word for murder. Somewhere in history, the phrase, "my wife is with child" was replaced by "she is pregnant." To me, pro choice means that women do have a choice: use birth control if you wish to remain childless.
I can't help but wonder if there is a lawyer, judge, Supreme Court justice or a legislator that is able to explain my legal question and leave no reasonable doubt in my mind with their answer.
If any individual murders or causes the death of a woman that is pregnant, whether it is a known condition prior to her death or discovered after the fact during an autopsy, the individual is charged with two counts of murder; the mother and the child that she was carrying in her womb. In a court of law, the case against the accused is tried as a double homocide.
What logic and fact explains that a double homocide has been committed if the victim is pregnant at the time of death, yet that same person is allowed by law to kill her own child and remain within the borders of a legal and sanctioned act of murder.
Which is it? Life in the womb or non-life until a live birth certificate is signed by a qualified physician?
How can an individual be charged with the murder of an unborn child but the mother of that same child can commit pre-meditated murder and it is a legal act?
Someone of great importance and wisdom must have a very good explanation for this simple minded mother. I would be ever so appreciative.
MARCIA FUNK
Carson City
